We often hear both from biblical and patristic scholars that a great dichotomy exists between "pre-critical" and "critical" exegetes of the Scriptures. The Enlightenment would probably be the usual dividing line separating the two in the minds of these scholars. There is much truth to this, as can be observed not only in the methodology of biblical scholarship over the past 250 years, but also of the questions asked of the text. For instance, I don't know of any Church Father who spends much time discussing the sources used to comprise the synoptic gospels, while every modern commentary on Matthew, Mark, or Luke is expected to somehow address the "synoptic problem."
And yet just when we get comfortable with this pre-critical/critical dichotomy, we run into problems if we neglect to read the commentators of the past, assuming that they have nothing to tell us about our modern questions posed to the text, or perhaps even that our questions are somehow superior to their questions simply because they are modern. Hence, more and more scholars today are turning to exegetes of ages past - those like St. John Chrysostom who did not learn Greek at a graduate school in the West, but spoke it as their primary language - to help understand what the NT authors meant.
Every once in awhile, however, when we read the Church Fathers, we see that they were not wholly unaware of problems that would later occupy the minds of post-Enlightenment biblical scholars, nor were they without proposed solutions to these problems.
This became clear to me in my research last summer for an independent study I did with
Prof. Ruth Anne Reese on exilic themes in 1 Peter. One question wrestled with by modern scholars is the ethnic makeup of the recipients of this general epistle, whom the author identifies as "exiles/strangers (
parepidemois) of the diaspora" (1 Peter 1:1). Are these diaspora Jews who happen to be Christian? Are they Gentile Christians whom the author is intentionally identifying with the history of Israel so as to emphasize their identity as the People of God? Or is it an ethnically mixed audience, and is the ethnic makeup of the recipients unimportant to Peter, as there is no longer Jew or Gentile in Christ (cf. Gal. 3:28)?
It is not uncommon in commentaries on 1 Peter for scholars to note a shift in opinion from early Christian exegetes to modern NT scholars, with the former assuming that the recipients are Jewish Christians, and the majority of scholars today (with a few notable exceptions) believing the recipients to have been Gentile converts from paganism. The main reason for the disagreement is Peter's addressing his recipients as "Israel" on the one hand while the language used to describe the recipients' pre-conversion lives on the other gives the impression that they were former pagans. Would an early Christian really go so far as to describe the pre-Christian life in Judaism as characterized by passions of ignorance (1:14)? Or would an author clearly appealing to the imagery of Israel consider pre-Christian Israelite traditions to have been a "worthless way of life" (1:18)? These questions, in addition to the references to immoral conduct associated with paganism (4:2-4; cf. 2:9) cause most scholars to opt for (at least predominantly) a Gentile audience.
Without here proposing a solution to this problem, I want to draw attention to at least one Church Father who was aware of it and the creative solution he proposes. The eighth century British Church Father known as the
Venerable Bede stands out from other early Christian commentators on the NT epistles in his choice of which epistles to comment upon. Whereas most chose to focus on Paul's epistles, Bede wrote commentaries on each of the Catholic Epistles (1-2 Peter; 1-3 John; James; Jude). While many commentators today simply list his opinion of the recipients as Jewish Christians in a footnote, his answer to this question is actually more complex than this. Here it is:
The word used to identify Peter's recipients in 1 Peter 1:1 is
parepidemos. This is translated in various modern English translations as "exile," "pilgrim," "stranger," "resident alien," etc. Bede translates it as "newcomer," i.e. convert. He notes the opinion of the great western Father St. Jerome that the letter's recipients were "of the circumcision." However, Bede uniquely argues that these recipients were in fact Gentile former pagans who had first fully converted to Judaism (hence making them "of the circumcision" and truly newcomers or converts), then became Christians after hearing Peter preach. This explains both the references to the addressees as Israel and the apparent references to the recipients' pagan past.
I would not say that I find this argument convincing, but it is certainly brilliant and shows that at least in Bede's case, pre-critical commentators were not wholly unaware of some of the problems with which critical scholars would later wrestle.